Upwork INTERNET SECURITY TEST 2018

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1. Which of the following are the components of a UTM appliance?

Answers:

1. Firewall
2. Gateway Antispam
3. Gateway Antivirus
4. IDS/IPS

2. Which of the following are Virus propagation techniques?

Answers:

1. Master Boot Record
2. File Infection
3. Server Boot Record
4. Macro Infection
5. Slave Boot Record

3. Which of the following measures are taken to enhance the security of the system? (Select all that apply)

Answers:

1. Operating System based hardening
2. Network Based hardening
3. Application Based hardening
4. Timely Refining of Security Policies

4. Which of the following methods can be used for Network hardening?

Answers:

1. Evaluating IDS
2. E-mail Encryption
3. Backup of the Mail Server.
4. Refining ACLs on routers and switches.
5. Up-to-date OS and patches of Network devices.

5. Which of the following are signs of Security breach?

Answers:

1. Data modification and deletion.
2. System performance issues.
3. Different traffic patterns.
4. Large number of failed log in attempts.

6. Which of the following are the placement modes of an IDS/IPS?

Answers:

1. Inline
2. Hybrid
3. Tap
4. SPAN

7. Which of the following are the advantages of Honeypots?

Answers:

1. Intelligent IDS
2. Distracts Hackers
3. Encrypts Data
4. Decrypts Data

8. Which of the following things should be kept in mind while managing passwords?

Answers:

1. Dictionary words should be used.
2. Easily guessed passwords should not be used.
3. Passwords should not be stored on a plain view.
4. Passwords should be changed once a month.
5. Passwords should be shared.

9. Which of the following Symmetric encryption algorithms is/are supported by S/MIME?

Answers:

1. RSA
2. DES
3. 3DES
4. SHA-1

10. Which of the following are Email Security protocols?

Answers:

1. S/MIME
2. PEM
3. STE
4. PME

11. Which of the following can be classified as passive attacks?

Answers:

1. SYN attacks.
2. Vulnerability scans.
3. ARP Spoofing.
4. DoS Attack
5. Sniffing.

12. Select the common VPN protocols.

Answers:

1. PPP
2. L2TP
3. LT2P
4. PPTP

13. Which of the following are Vulnerability assessment tools?

Answers:

1. TCPDUMP
2. Nmap
3. Wireshark
4. Nessus

14. Which of the following are the components of IPSec?

Answers:

1. Authentication Header.
2. Authorization Header
3. Encapsulated Payload.
4. Encapsulating Security Payload.

15. Which of the following appliances help/s in filtering virus packets?

Answers:

1. Firewalls
2. Antivirus Engines
3. Routers
4. UTM
5. IDS/IPS

16. Select the objectives of E-mail security.

Answers:

1. Verifying the source of a message.
2. Classifying attachments.
3. E-mail backups.
4. Message integrity.

17. Which of the following protocols uses UDP:

Answers:

1. HTTP
2. DNS
3. TFTP
4. FTP

18. Below are the given statements, which statement shows the breach of Confidentiality:

Answers:

1. Hacker using sniffer tools to view the packets in a network.
2. Important data deleted from a document.
3. SYN attack on a host.
4. Brute Force attack on server.

19. Which of the following goals cannot be achieved with Symmetric cryptography?

Answers:

1. Non-repudiation
2. Confidentiality
3. Integrity
4. Availability.

20. The ability to exploit a vulnerability is called:

Answers:

1. Threat
2. Weakness
3. Permission Escalation
4. Risk

21. Allen wants to sign a message which he is sending to Mark. Which key will Allen use to sign the message?

Answers:

1. Allen’s Public key.
2. Allen’s Private key.
3. Mark’s Public key.
4. Mark’s Private key.

22. Which protocol helps in securing LDAP?

Answers:

1. SSL/TLS
2. SLDAP
3. LDAPS
4. SSH

23. By which of the following third parties are Digital Certificates signed?

Answers:

1. Digital Certificate Signing Authority
2. Certificate Authority
3. Certificate Signing Authority
4. Digital Signing Authority.

24. Which of the following Asymmetric encryption algorithms is supported by S/MIME?

Answers:

1. RSA
2. DES
3. 3DES
4. SHA-1

25. Which of the following is the standard certificate?

Answers:

1. C.509
2. X.505
3. X.509
4. C.505

26. Which of the following is an application attack?

Answers:

1. Buffer Overflow
2. DNS Poisoning
3. LAND
4. Brute Force

27. In how many phases is a IPSec VPN connection completed while making a VPN connection with a Security product?

Answers:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

28. In which of the following protocols does an SYN attack help to find a weakness?

Answers:

1. HTTP
2. RIP
3. TCP/IP
4. FTP

29. Which of the following authentication protocols are used to encrypt passwords?

Answers:

1. CHAP
2. APP
3. RAP
4. ARAP

30. Which protocol is used by TACACS+?

Answers:

1. TCP
2. UDP
3. IP
4. AIX

31. Which of the following is an Asymmetric algorithm?

Answers:

1. MD5
2. El Gamal
3. IDEA
4. SHA-1

32. Which of the following helps us to block attacks on a single machine?

Answers:

1. Host Based IDS
2. Network Based IDS
3. Host Based IPS
4. Network Based IPS

33. How many keys are required if two parties communicate using Asymmetric cryptography?

Answers:

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

34. What is the key length of Triple DES?

Answers:

1. 56
2. 156
3. Variable Length
4. 168

35. What are the features of an IPS?

Answers:

1. Fault Tolerance.
2. Minimal Overhead.
3. Timely Alerting Mechanism.
4. Anomaly based.

36. Which key is used to decrypt the message in PKI?

Answers:

1. Public Key
2. Private Key
3. Pre-shared Secret
4. Hybrid Key

37. Which of the following statements resembles Trojan horses?

Answers:

1. Self Replication
2. Virus Infections
3. Installation of Backdoor Programs.
4. Displaying Unauthorized Advertisements

38. Which port is used by PPTP?

Answers:

1. 1702
2. 1701
3. 1723
4. 1724

39. Below are the given statements, which statement shows the breach of Availability:

Answers:

1. SYN attack on a server.
2. Deleting important contents from a document.
3. Decrypting a credit card during transmission.
4. Using wrong password to access authorized documents.

40. A criminal who breaks into computers maliciously is known as

Answers:

1. Black Hat Hacker.
2. Grey Hat Hacker
3. White Hat Hacker
4. Script Kiddie

41. What is function of IPS?

Answers:

1. NATing Device
2. A device to block intrusion attacks
3. A device to scan for Virus
4. Firewall Technology

42. The process of switching protocols between routing devices is called

Answers:

1. Exchanging
2. Protocol Exchanging
3. Switching
4. Protocol Switching

43. Which of the following are Transport Layer Security protocols?

Answers:

1. SHTTP
2. SSL
3. SOCKS
4. IPSec

44. A Brute Force attack

Answers:

1. sends SYN packets.
2. sends Spam mails.
3. prevents the system from responding.
4. discovers the passwords.

45. Which of the following statements is true of Tunneling?

Answers:

1. Data is unencrypted
2. Only passwords are encrypted.
3. Data part is encrypted.
4. Contents of the protocol are encapsulated.

46. Which of the following detect/s security weaknesses in a remote or local host?

Answers:

1. Worms
2. Antivirus
3. Scanner
4. Adwares

47. By which of the following can the injection of bogus routes into the core network be prevented ?

Answers:

1. Routed Protocol Authentication
2. Routing Protocol Authentication
3. Router Authentication
4. Route Authentication

48. Mike wants to secure the data on his personal computer. Which of the following options will he choose to secure the data?

Answers:

1. Archiving the data
2. Compression
3. Hide
4. Encryption

49. Which protocol is used to secure the WAP communication?

Answers:

1. Secure Wireless Communication.
2. WAP Transport Layer Security
3. Transport Layer Security
4. Wireless Transport Layer Security

50. The part of a company’s intranet which is extended to users outside the company is called:

Answers:

1. Internet
2. Intranet
3. Exposed Intranet
4. Extranet

51. The concept of allowing access to resources only to those permitted is known as

Answers:

1. Resource Security
2. Accounting
3. Authentication
4. Authorization

52. How many keys are required if two parties communicate using Symmetric cryptography?

Answers:

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

53. Which of the following keys helps us in the verification of the Digital Signature?

Answers:

1. Private Key
2. Public Key
3. Public and Private Key
4. Digital Key

54. What is RBL in E-mail Security?

Answers:

1. Realtime Blacking List
2. Realtime Blocking List
3. Realtime Blackhole List

55. Which of the following techniques is used to approach security in Java?

Answers:

1. Blackbox
2. Sandboxing
3. Whitebox
4. Java Applets

56. What does RBL contain?

Answers:

1. IP addresses of mail server
2. IP addresses of open relay mail servers
3. IP addresses of closed relay mail servers
4. Vulnerable ports

57. What is RSA in cryptography?

Answers:

1. Riven, Shamir, Adleman
2. Rivest, Shamir, Adleman
3. Rivest, Shamid, Adleman
4. Rivest, Shamir, Ademan

58. Which of the following are the key principles of Internet Security?

Answers:

1. Confidentiality, Identification, Availability
2. Confidentiality, Integrity, Authentication
3. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
4. Confidentiality, Identification, Authentication

59. Which of the following is created to serve as a snare for intruders?

Answers:

1. Honey Pots.
2. IDS/IPS
3. Firewalls
4. Vulnerability Assessment Tools

60. What is S/MIME?

Answers:

1. Secure Multipurpose Intranet Mail Extensions
2. Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
3. Secure Multipurpose Internet Message Extensions
4. Secure Multipurpose Intranet Message Extensions

61. Which of the following can be transmitted through an E-mail?

Answers:

1. Viruses
2. Trojan Horses
3. Worms
4. Malicious Codes
5. All of the above

62. Joe wants to secure his client’s Web Server. Which of the following measures will he take?

Answers:

1. Managing Access Control
2. Eliminating Scripting Vulnerabilities
3. Maintaining Integrity.
4. Blocking Browser Exploits.

63. Which of the following is Application-level security protocol are used for communications session security?

Answers:

1. SSH
2. SSL/TLS
3. Both A and B
4. None of the above

64. What is a UTM appliance?

Answers:

1. Unified Threat Manager.
2. Unified Threat Management.
3. Universal Threat Management.
4. Unique Threat Management.

65. In which of the following does Buffer Overflow help us to find weaknesses?

Answers:

1. Hardware
2. Software
3. Firewalls
4. Routers

66. In which of the following attacks, sending a large number of spoofed ICMP ECHO requests to broadcast address?

Answers:

1. SYN attack.
2. land.c attack
3. teardrop.c attack
4. SMURF attack

67. Which port does IKE key negotiation protocol use?

Answers:

1. TCP 4500
2. UDP 4500
3. UDP 500
4. UDP 550

68. Which type of authentication is.”Something the user has ” ?

Answers:

1. Single Factor
2. Dual Factor
3. Triple Factor
4. Hybrid Factor

69. Which protocol is used by RADIUS?

Answers:

1. UDP
2. TCP
3. IP
4. AIX

70. A positive detection of result that is false or untrue is called

Answers:

1. True Positive
2. Event Detection
3. False Positive
4. False Negative

71. Which of the following are the components of PKI?

Answers:

1. Certificate Authority.
2. Organizational Registration Authorities
3. Certificate Holders
4. Clients that validate digital signatures.

72. Which of the following protocols does not help in securing the FTP?

Answers:

1. SSL
2. SSFTP
3. FTPS
4. S/FTP

73. By which of the following methods can social engineering be curbed by?

Answers:

1. Instaling more than 2 firewalls.
2. User Education
3. Installing 2 antiviruses
4. Installing IPS.

74. Which of the following Symmetric algorithms has variable key length?

Answers:

1. AES
2. Triple DES
3. IDEA
4. Rivest Cipher 4

75. Which of the following statement shows the breach of Integrity:

Answers:

1. Viewing packets using sniffer tools in a network.
2. Encrypting a document.
3. Spoof attack on a host.
4. Important data deleted from a document.

76. Select the drawbacks of Symmetric key cryptography.

Answers:

1. It can’t implement non-repudiation
2. It is scalable
3. Key distribution is easy in it
4. It is less secure

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